0
$\begingroup$

How do I prove the following inequality :

$$\Bigg(\frac{2}{\alpha^2} \, \big( e^{\alpha x} - e^{\alpha y} \big) \, + \, e^{\alpha y} (y^2 - x^2) \; \Bigg) > 0 $$

given, $x, y > 0$ ?

Can anyone provide me with hints about this problem ?

Thanks in advance.

Here, $\alpha$ is a positive constant.

$\endgroup$
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ The word you're looking for here is "inequality." $\endgroup$ – Math1000 May 30 '16 at 21:15
  • $\begingroup$ This is obviously false, try $x=y+1$ when $y\to\infty$. $\endgroup$ – Did Jun 16 '16 at 5:22
  • $\begingroup$ "Obviously"?lol $\endgroup$ – Mathemagician1234 Jun 16 '16 at 6:01

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.