Let us recall that the famous Fibonacci sequence: $0,1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,\dots$ is defined as follows:
we put $\phi_0 = 0, \phi_1 = 1$ and define $\phi_{n+2} = \phi_{n+1} + \phi_n$. We want to find a formula for $\phi_n$. To do this
a) Take a 2×2 matrix $A=\begin{pmatrix}1&1\\1&0\end{pmatrix}$ such that
$\begin{pmatrix}\phi_{n+2}\\ \phi_{n+1}\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}1&1\\1&0\end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix}\phi_{n+1}\\ \phi_n\end{pmatrix}$
b) Diagonalize $A$ and find a formula for $A^n$.
c) Find a formula for $\phi_n$. (You will need to compute an inverse and perform multiplication here).
`d) Show that the vector $(\phi_{n+1} /\phi_n , 1)^T$ converges to an eigenvector of $A$.
What do you think, is it a coincidence?
***for part b) I diagonalized in a way that was not very clean. How do you do c) and d)?