Consider an $n \times n$ matrix of the form $$ A = \begin{bmatrix} a_1 & a_2 & \ldots & a_{n-1} & a_n \\ 1 \\ & 1 \\ & & \ddots \\ & & & 1 \end{bmatrix} $$ for certain $a_1, \ldots, a_n \in \mathbb{R}$ (and zeroes in all blank spaces). Can this matrix ever (for some $n \in \mathbb{N}$ and some $a_1, \ldots, a_n \in \mathbb{R}$) satisfy all of the following three properties:
- $\lvert \lambda \rvert \leq 1$ for all eigenvalues $\lambda$ of $A$
- For all eigenvalues $\lambda$ with $\lvert \lambda \rvert = 1$, the algebraic multiplicity is equal to the geometric multiplicity
- There exists an eigenvalue $\lambda$ with $\lvert \lambda \rvert = 1$ and such that the multiplicity of $\lambda$ is greater than $1$?
Note that I do not require $A$ to be invertible. I don't immediately see why such a matrix can't exist, but if it could, that would lead to a counterexample to some unproven theorem in my course notes.
I calculated by hand that such a matrix can not exist for $n \leq 3$.