Problem Statement: In Fermat's Last Theorem $$x^n + y^n = z^n$$ $x,y,z$ are considered integers. But upon closer inspection it is seen that it is also true for any rational numbers $x,y,z$. And that FLT is not applicable only when $x,y,z$ are irrational.
Query : Why is it that then it is always and only mentioned that Fermat's theorem is true when $x,y,z$ are integers and not rational numbers ? Is my perception correct? Can this be proven or disproved ?