This is a very basic question, but I somehow manage to confuse myself all the time. So any help is greatly appreciated. Suppose we have two random variables $X$ and $Y$ with joint distribution function $f$ where $f$ is uniform. That is
$$ f(x,y)= \begin{cases} 1 & \text{if $0\leq x\leq 1$ and $0\leq y \leq 1$}, \\ 0 & \text{elsewhere}. \end{cases} $$
If I want to determine the conditional probability $\Pr(Y>q\mid X=p)$ I get confused since
$$ \Pr(Y>q\mid X=p)=\frac{\Pr((Y>q)\cap (X=p))}{\Pr(X=p)} $$ but then isn't the denominator a zero probability event? In general what is the answer of this conditional probability?