The question
Show that $S^1$ is a deformation retract og $D^2\setminus\{(0,0)\}$ the unit punctured disc.
The solution
the inclusion map $i:S^2 \to D^2\setminus\{(0,0)\}$ and
$$j:D^2\setminus\{(0,0)\} \to S^1: (x,y) \to \frac{a}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2}}(x,y)$$
are inverse homotopy equivalences via the straight line homotopy.
Question marks on this one. I recall the definition of homotopy equivalences
$X,Y$ are homotopy equivalent if there exists $f:X \to Y$ and $g:Y \to X$ such that we can construct homotopies (note that it is plural)
$$h:gf \cong id_X, k:fg \cong id_Y$$
What troubles me with the solution; simply, So, what is the deformation retract anyway?
A deformation retract is a map, a single map $h$. But the solution is talking about $i,j$ being inverse homotopy equivalences, so this means we have two homotopies $h,k$ for $ij$ and $ji$,
SO what, is the solution $h$?$k$? What is it saying? Very unclear to me.