I have been studying real analysis, and I am on the section of differentiation. I am doing some problems to check understanding. I found this problem and attempted to solve it. My solution seems simple, and I am afraid that I am not understanding the concept.
Problem: Suppose that $f:\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ satisfies $0\leq f(x) \leq x^2$ for every $x\in\mathbb{R}$. Prove that $f$ is differentiable at $x=0$.
My solution: We want to show that the limit of $\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}$ as $x$ goes to zero exists. Hence we have that
$$\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=\frac{f(x)}{x}$$ (Can we conclude that f(0)=0? If so, why? Assuming that we can, I proceeded in the following way.)
But note that for $x \neq 0$ $$0\leq\frac{f(x)}{x}\leq \frac{x^2}{x}=x.$$ Hence by taking limits we obtain
$$0\leq \frac{f(x)}{x} \leq 0.$$ In particular, this implies that
$$\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{f(x)}{x} =0.$$ Thus f is differentiable at $x=0$.