I understand the majority of the proof of the derivative formula for exponential functions of the form: (full proof at bottom of post)
$\frac{d}{dx}a^x$
but I have a little trouble with the last step which implies that the rate of change of any exponential function if proportional to both the function itself and the derivative of the function at zero. I fail to see how
$\lim_{h\to 0}{\frac{a^h-1}{h}}=f'(0)$
*the limit is supposedly the value of the derivative of $a^x$ at $0$, but to me the limit seems only to be a simplified part of the whole definition of the derivative of the function! Where is the flaw in this line of reasoning?
(to clarify my question: It seems like the $lim_{h\to 0}$ defines the derivative of $f$ with respect to $x$ anywhere, not just $0$.)
Proof:
$f(x)=a^x$
$f'(x)=\lim_{h\to 0}{\frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}}$
$f'(x)=\lim_{h\to 0}{\frac{a^{x+h} -a^x}{h}}$
$=\lim_{h\to 0}{\frac{a^x(a^h-1)}{h}}$
$=a^x \cdot \lim_{h\to 0}{\frac{a^h-1}{h}}$ , and supposedly $f'(0)=\lim_{h\to 0}{\frac{a^h-1}{h}}$, so
$f'(x)=f'(0)\cdot a^x$
$\square$
I also apologize to anyone who finds this question too basic; I just can't seem to break this mental block. Any help from a deeper understanding is greatly appreciated!