The statement ["$p$ if $q$"] is equivalent to saying that
$q$ implies $p$.
The statement ["$p$ if $q$ is false"] is equivalent to saying that it is not the case that $q$ implies $p$.
Here, you have to distinguish between the real world interpretation, and the interpretation of a logician.
In the real world, the statement ["$p$ if $q$ is false"]
means that there is no compelling causative effect in the event $q$ which would force the event $p$ to also occur.
However, a logician sees it differently. To a logician, the only way that the statement ["$p$ if $q$"] is false is if the following equivalent statement is false : ["$q$ implies $p$"]. Further, to a logician, the only way that this staement can be false is if both of the following events occur:
The statement ["$p$ only if $q$"] is similarly ambiguous. In the real world, this generally means that both of the following statements are true:
- If not $q$, then not $p$. This is equivalent to saying that $p$ implies $q$.
- If $q$ then $p$.
Therefore, in the real world, the statment is interpreted as $p$ if and only if $q$.
However, a logician would only interpret the statement to mean that $p$ implies $q$. The logician would not (also) interpret the statement as signifying that $q$ implies $p$.
So, look at the first sentence of the posted excerpt. As discussed:
- ["$p$ if $q$ is false"] may be construed to signify that $q$ does not imply $p$.
- ["$p$ only if $q$"] may be construed to signify that $p$ implies $q$.
The two construances above are not contradictory. That is, in general, you can have two statements $p$ and $q$ such that $p$ implies $q$ but $q$ does not imply $p$.