Recently I learned about the infinite cardinal $\aleph_0$, and stumbled upon a seeming contradiction. Here are my assumptions based on what I learned:
- $\aleph_0$ is the cardinality of the natural numbers
- $\aleph_0$ is larger than all finite numbers, and thus cannot be reached simply by counting up from 1.
But then I started wondering: the cardinality of the set $\{1\}$ is $1$, the cardinality of the set $\{1, 2\}$ is $2$, the cardinality of the set $\{1, 2, 3\}$ is 3, and so on. So I drew the conclusion that the cardinality of the set $\{1, 2, \ldots n\}$ is $n$.
Based on this conclusion, if the cardinality of the natural numbers is $\aleph_0$, then the set of natural numbers could be denoted as $\{1, 2, \ldots \aleph_0\}$. But such a set implies that $\aleph_0$ can be reached by counting up from $1$, which contradicts my assumption #2 above.
This question has been bugging me for a while now... I'm not sure where I've made a mistake in my reasoning or if I have even used the correct mathematical terms/question title/tags to describe it, but I'd sure appreciate your help.