There is a theorem that states that the vector space of homogeneous polynomials decomposes into an orthogonal direct sum of vector spaces of harmonic polynomials as
$$ \mathcal{P}_n = \mathcal{H}_n \oplus r^2 \mathcal{H}_{n-2} \oplus r^4 \mathcal{H}_{n-4} \oplus \cdots $$ where the inner product can be defined for instance as $$\langle x_0^{d_1}x_1^{d_2}\cdots x_N^{d_N},x_0^{m_1}x_1^{m_2}\cdots x_N^{m_N} \rangle= d_1!\delta_{d_1,m_1}\cdots d_N !\delta_{d_N,m_N} $$ where $\sum_i d_i = \sum_i m_i$ which says that monomials are pairwise orthogonal.
Say that I have built up a basis using Gram Schmidt procedures up to third order such that $\mathcal{H}_0 = \{1\}$, $\mathcal{H}_1 = \{x,y\}$, and $\mathcal{H}_3 = \{x^2-y^2, xy\}$ ignoring normalization.
When the polynomials are restricted to the unit sphere the above decomposition reads $$ \mathcal{P}^S_n = \mathcal{H}^S_n \oplus \mathcal{H}^S_{n-2} \oplus \mathcal{H}^S_{n-4} \oplus \cdots $$ where all polynomials are evaluated over the unit sphere and $\mathcal{H}^S_k$ are spherical harmonics.
Thus returning to my basis above, is it correct to say that these correspond to the real Spherical Harmonics? I am mostly interested in if there is a way to prove that they are orthogonal over a typical inner product such as $$\langle p,q\rangle = \int d\Omega (p*q) $$ where integration is over the unit sphere, and I again don't care about normalization. By inspection it is obvious that they are going to be orthogonal in this way but I can't prove it to myself.
The part I am struggling with is the fact that I only use the first inner product in making the polynomials so I am obviously never requiring that they are integral-orthogonal. But maybe the reason they turn out to be is because I have found a minimal basis on which to expand the Harmonic Polynomials, which means they are going to be orthogonal?
Please let me know if there is a connection here that I am missing. Thank you!