So the well known Fibonacci sequence is $$ F=\{1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,\ldots\} $$ where $f_1=f_2=1$ and $f_k=f_{k-1}+f_{k-2}$ for $k>2$. The ratio of $f_k:f_{k-1}$ approaches the Golden Ratio the further you go: $$\lim_{k \rightarrow \infty} \frac{f_k}{f_{k-1}} =\phi \approx 1.618$$
Let's define a class of similar sequences $F_n$ where each $f_k$ is the sum of the previous $n$ numbers, $f_k=f_{k-1} + f_{k-2} + \dots + f_{k-n}$ so that the traditional Fibonacci sequence would be $F_2$ but we can talk about alternatives such as $$F_3 = \{1,1,1,3,5,9,17,\dots \}$$ where we initialized the values $f_1$ through $f_3$ to be $1$ and we can show that in this case $$ \lim_{k \rightarrow \infty} \frac{f_k}{f_{k-1}} \approx 1.839286755 $$ The following table gives some convergences for various values of $n$: $$ \begin{matrix} F_n & \text{Converges to} \\ \hline F_2 & \phi \\ F_3 & 1.839286755 \\ F_4 & 1.927561975 \\ F_5 & 1.965948237 \\ F_{6} & 1.983582843 \\ F_{10} & 1.999018626 \end{matrix} $$ Just by inspection, it seems that the convergence values are converging toward $2$ as $n \rightarrow \infty$.
So my primary question is: What is the proof that the convergence converges to 2 (assuming it does).