This was an exercise to show that, in a sense, the even numbers have more prime factors than the odds, but--if it's right-- I still have a question.
As an heuristic calculation, we could take a large interval (1, 2N) on which the average number of prime factors with repetitions is $\mu$ (for sufficiently large N, $\mu $ is about $ \ln \ln 2N$; see answer to this problem). WLOG N is even, then the set $S_2 = \{N+2, N+4, N+6, ..., 2N \} $ corresponds to a sequence $S_1 = \{\frac{N}{2}+1, \frac{N}{2}+ 2, ..., N \}$. The average number of primes in $S_1$ is only slightly less than $\mu$ for large N$^{(1)}$, and so the average number of primes $\mu_2$ in $ S_2$ is $\mu+1$ primes. Let $\mu_o$ be the average number of primes of odd numbers in $[N,2N]$.
Since on $[N,2N]$ the average number of primes is also about $\mu$, we have that $$\mu =\frac{( \mu_2 + \mu_o)}{2} = \frac{(\mu + 1 + \mu_o )}{2},$$ and so the average number of primes for the odd numbers $^{(2)} $ is $$\mu_o = \mu - 1 = \mu_2 - 2 $$ so
$$\mu_2 - \mu_o \approx 2.$$
This argument has I think a somewhat complicated generalization. Using the same reasoning for multiples of $3, 5,...,p_k $ and so on, the net result would be an average number of primes $\mu_{p_k} $ for multiples of the set $P_k = \{ 2,3,5, ..., p_k \}$ with an increasing number of numbers that are multiples of more than one such prime, so that $\mu_{p_k} > \mu + 1$ and $\mu_{p_k}$ is an increasing function of N (or k ). So if we call $\mu_n$ the average number of primes for non-multiples of $P_k$, I expect that for large N the difference
$$\mu_{p_k} - \mu_n > 2 . $$ My question is whether we reach a point beyond which $$ \mu_{p_k} = \mu + \beta$$ with $\beta(N)>1$ and a,b constants of proportionality with $a > b$ , because multiples of $P_k$ take up more than half the interval, so that $$\mu = a\mu_{p_k} + b\mu_n = a(\mu + \beta) + b\mu_n$$ and $$\mu(1-a) = \mu b = a\beta + b\mu_n$$ and finally $$\mu_n = \mu -\frac{a\beta}{b} < 2.$$
I am guessing so, but that the asymptotic relationships involved make it a somewhat weak assertion?
Hopefully the question is clear. Thanks.
(1) Because $\ln \ln 2N = \ln (\ln 2 + \ln N) \sim \ln \ln N.$
(2) On [1, N] for N = 2,500,000, $\mu_2 - \mu_o$ is about 1.9.