I have to prove that if $\int_{a}^{b}fdg$ exist then for every subinterval $[c,d] \subset [a,b]$ also $\int_{c}^{d}fdg$ exist. I was thinking about using theorem that says, if we add some points to our partition of interval then we get fine inequalities for lower and upper sums. But I don't know if it's right and also I do not know how to write it properly.


Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.