When learning set theory and logic, one fact that popped up a handful of times was that we did not quantify over predicates. To quote the notes I took in class on the axiom of unrestricted comprehension:
Given any predicate $\varphi$ in the language of set theory with one free variable $x$ (and perhaps some parameters $a_1,\ldots,a_n$), there exists a necessariy unique set $\{x\;\colon\;\varphi(x)\}$.
Note that $\varphi$ is not part of the logical language: it is not an object that has members and so we cannot say $\forall\varphi$. Formally we would write $$\exists A\forall x(x\in A\leftrightarrow\varphi(x)).$$
Is there a reason why we cannot (or do not want to?) quantify over predicates?
I have also studied the arithmetization of syntax, whereby we code functions, relations, sentences, predicates, etc. by natural numbers, in an effort to state and prove the First Incompleteness Theorem. I am wondering if there is any way you could take a similar approach to translate predicates into sets, thereby creating a "set of predicates"? Indeed, we could arithmetize these predicates by the Godel function $\#$, and then form a set of predicates via the axiom schema of restricted comprehension (separation), by having some predicate $\psi$ such that $\psi(y)$ if and only if $y=\#(\varphi(x))$ for some predicate $\varphi(x)$ with one free variable. This would remove the restriction on quantifying over predicates.
Realizing that this does not circumvent the need for a schema, this doesn't achieve much. However my question is whether it is possible to quantify over predicates: if so, is my argument valid, and if not, why not?