I'm aware that the vector space of $\mathbb{R}$ over $\mathbb{Q}$ has a basis, and that this basis is uncountable (as we would otherwise have a contradiction.)
as is pointed out in the comment section, the basis must have cardinality $|\mathbb{R}|$.
[[for every $r \in \mathbb{R}$, there exists a finite collection of basis elements $b_2,...,b_n$ so that $r=q_1+q_2b_2+...+q_nb_n$ for $q_{i} \in \mathbb{Q}$ for all $i$.]]
Moreover, for every linearly independent set $A \subseteq \mathbb{R}$ there exists a basis so that it contains $A$.
My question is: when does an uncountable collection of linearly independent elements [over $\mathbb{Q}$] form a basis for $\mathbb{R}$ ?
While it is difficult to specify a basis, it seems that it wouldn't be too difficult to tell whether or not something specified is indeed a basis (namely that every $r \in \mathbb{R}$ is a linear combination of finitely many basis elements.) But if I pick an arbitrary set of uncountably many linearly independent elements, how can I tell if it's a basis?
edit: The reason I ask is that given, say, $\mathbb{R}^2$ as a vector space over the real numbers, $\mathbb{R}^2$ has dimension 2 and so if we show that any $2$ vectors are linearly independent, then they form a basis for $\mathbb{R}^2$.
However, $\mathbb{R}$ over the rationals has at least uncountably many basis elements. to prove that that an uncountable set is a basis, does it suffice to show their linear independence? The answer is clearly "no," given that we may remove a single basis element, and what remains will be an uncountable linearly independent set.
so, how can we tell when a linearly independent set is a basis?