In this paper, it is proved in Proposition 10.4.3 that if $G$ is an infinite group such that every nontrivial subgroup of $G$ is of finite index, then $G \cong \mathbb{Z}$. The authors need this fact to prove another theorem. They remark at the end of $\S 1.4$ that the proof is non-trivial and they do not know if this was previously known.
The proof given in the paper surely won't seem difficult to those who are familiar with the necessary group theoretic background (such as the theorem of Hölder-Burnside-Zassenhaus). I was wondering whether this proposition was known before; and if so, whether it has easier proofs that use less machinery.