I have a proof in my text book which I understand, but theres just one step that I'm not sure is correct.

it says:

$$\frac{2^{n-1}}{3}< \frac{1}{\varepsilon }$$ is equal to $$2^{n-1}> \frac{3}{\varepsilon }$$

I'm just a bit confused because it seems like all theyve done is multiply both sides of the first inequality by 3, so I don't understand why they flipped the inequality sign in the second. Is this a typo in the textbook or I missing something really obvious.

  • $\begingroup$ This appears to be a typo. $\endgroup$ – Ben Sheller Mar 17 '16 at 5:39
  • $\begingroup$ ok. Thanks guys! $\endgroup$ – Lincoln77 Mar 17 '16 at 5:49
  • $\begingroup$ Shouldn't we bring this out of the unanswered tab? $\endgroup$ – S.C.B. Mar 17 '16 at 5:54

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