I remember that if $f,g \in \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ , then it is well-defined \begin{align*} \displaystyle (f \ast g)(x)= \int_{\mathbb{R}^n} g(x-y)f(y)dy=\int_{\mathbb{R}^n} (\tau_x \widetilde{g})(y)f(y)dy \end{align*} where $\widetilde{g}(x)=g(-x)$ e $(\tau_a g)(x)=g(x-a)$, obviously $\tau_x \widetilde{\varphi} \in \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^n)$, and if $u \in \mathcal{S}'(\mathbb{R}^n)$, $\varphi \in \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^n)$, define \begin{align*} \displaystyle (u \ast \varphi)(x)=\langle \varphi(x-y), u(y) \rangle = \langle (\tau_x \widetilde{\varphi})(y), u(y) \rangle , \forall \varphi \in \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^n) \end{align*} The problem is to prove that if $\psi \in \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ or $\psi \in \mathcal{D}(\mathbb{R}^n)$, and $u \in \mathcal{S}'(\mathbb{R}^n)$, then $\displaystyle \langle \psi , u \ast \varphi \rangle = \langle \psi \ast \widetilde{\varphi} , u \rangle$.
Proof. we assume initially $u \ast \varphi, \psi, \varphi \in \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^n)$, in particular $u \ast \varphi \in \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^n) \subset L^1(\mathbb{R}^n)$ and by definition $\langle \psi , u \ast \varphi \rangle$ it defines the distribution determined by $u \ast \varphi$ $\forall \psi \in \mathcal{D}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ or $\forall \psi \in \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^n)$: \begin{align*} \langle \psi , u \ast \varphi \rangle &= \int_{\mathbb{R}^n} (\varphi \ast u)(x) \psi(x)dx \\ &=\int_{\mathbb{R}^n} \int_{\mathbb{R}^n} \varphi(x-y)u(y)dy \psi(x) dx \\ &= \int_{\mathbb{R}^n} u(y) \int_{\mathbb{R}^n} \varphi(x-y) \psi(x) dx dy \\ &= \int u(y) dy \int_{\mathbb{R}^n} \widetilde{\varphi}(y-x)\psi(x) dx \\ &= \langle \widetilde{\varphi} \ast \psi , u \rangle \end{align*} Now if $u \in \mathcal{S}'(\mathbb{R}^n)$ is fixed, we consider the inclusions $\mathcal{D}(\mathbb{R}^n) \subset \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^n) \subset \mathcal{S}'(\mathbb{R}^n) \subset \mathcal{D}'(\mathbb{R}^n)$. Since $\mathcal{D}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ is dense $\mathcal{D}'(\mathbb{R}^n)$, it is dense also in $\mathcal{S}'(\mathbb{R}^n)$, i.e. if $\lbrace \varphi_\epsilon \rbrace_{\epsilon >0}$ is standard mollifier, then $u \ast \varphi_\epsilon \rightarrow u$ in $\mathcal{S}'(\mathbb{R}^n)$ and that is the limit (i) $\lim_{\epsilon \rightarrow 0^+} \int_{\mathbb{R}^n} (u \ast \varphi_\epsilon) \psi(x) dx =\langle \psi, u \rangle$ $\forall \psi \in \mathcal{D}(\mathbb{R}^n)$, Therefore we can apply the previous case. Similarly it is proved that the thesis is true $\forall \psi \in \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ and $u \in \mathcal{S}'(\mathbb{R}^n)$, since (i) worth for the approximation theorem in Lebesgue spaces, in other words $\mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ is dense in $\mathcal{S}'(\mathbb{R}^n)$.
I would be grateful if you are confirmed that this proof is correct