I have 3 ordinals $\alpha,\beta,\gamma$, $\gamma\neq 0$. Is this implication true?
I have reason to believie it is not, namely because I can't prove it by induction. (I get stuck in the inductive step as $(\gamma+1)\cdot\alpha\neq\gamma\cdot\alpha+\alpha$). Nevertheless I can't find any counterexample, so perhaps it is true.
Got any hints?