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Prove: Let $f$ be continuous on $[a,b]$, then suppose $f(x) \geq 0$ for all $x \in [a,b]$. if there exists a point $c \in [a,b]$, such that $f(c) > 0. then $$\int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx>0$.

This is what i have so far, since $f(x)$ is continuous and $f(c)>0$ $\exists [t,s]$ such that $f(x) > f(x)/2$, $x \in [t,s]$ ... and I have no idea how to continuous to prove that, anyone help me? Thanks

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    $\begingroup$ Did you mean to say that $f(x)>\dfrac{f(c)}{2}$ for $x$ in an interval $[t,s]$ containing $c$? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 8, 2016 at 3:43
  • $\begingroup$ @JohnWaylandBales yes~ $\endgroup$
    – Helen
    Commented Mar 8, 2016 at 3:44
  • $\begingroup$ So then a rectangle with base the interval $[t,s]$ and height $\dfrac{f(c)}{2}$ would lie between the $x$-axis and the graph of $f$. Would that not imply that $\int_a^bf(x)\,dx\ge (s-t)\cdot\dfrac{f(c)}{2}$? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 8, 2016 at 3:48
  • $\begingroup$ Let $g(x) = \int_a^x f(x) dx$ Then $g'(x) \ge 0$ etc... Would that work? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 8, 2016 at 7:30
  • $\begingroup$ I know it will $ \geq $ while I just need > and necessary not = $\endgroup$
    – Helen
    Commented Mar 8, 2016 at 18:40

1 Answer 1

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First prove that $f(x) \geqslant 0$ implies $\displaystyle \int_a^bf(x) \, dx \geqslant 0$.

This follows because for any partition $Q$ and lower Darboux sum $L(Q,f)$

$$0 \leqslant L(Q,f) \leqslant \sup_{P} L(P,f) = \int_a^bf(x) \, dx.$$

As you observed, if there is at least one point $c \in [a,b]$ where $f$ is continuous and $f(c) > 0$, then by continuity there exists a subinterval $[\alpha,\beta]$ with $c \in (\alpha, \beta)$ and where $f(x) > f(c)/2 > 0$ for all $x \in [\alpha,\beta]$. The infimum of $f$ on $[\alpha,\beta]$ must, therefore, be strictly greater than $0$.

Hence,

$$\int_a^b f(x) \, dx \geqslant \int_\alpha^\beta f(x) \, dx\geqslant \inf_{x \in [\alpha,\beta]}f(x)(\beta - \alpha) > 0.$$

Here we are using $\displaystyle f(x) \geqslant g(x) \implies \int_a^b f(x) \, dx \geqslant \int_a^b g(x) \, dx$ which follows from the first part of the proof using $f(x) - g(x) \geqslant 0$ as the integrand. In particular,

$$f(x) \geqslant f(x) \chi_{[\alpha,\beta]} \implies \int_a^b f(x) \, dx \geqslant \int_\alpha^\beta f(x) \, dx, $$

and on $[\alpha,\beta]$,

$$f(x) \geqslant \inf_{x \in [\alpha,\beta]}f(x) \implies \int_\alpha^\beta f(x) \, dx\geqslant \inf_{x \in [\alpha,\beta]}f(x)(\beta - \alpha) .$$

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  • $\begingroup$ while I need to prove is > 0 rather than >&= 0 , it's still work? $\endgroup$
    – Helen
    Commented Mar 8, 2016 at 3:43
  • $\begingroup$ Yes it does -- will modify above. $\endgroup$
    – RRL
    Commented Mar 8, 2016 at 3:45
  • $\begingroup$ I see ....Thank you so much $\endgroup$
    – Helen
    Commented Mar 8, 2016 at 3:46
  • $\begingroup$ @Helen: You're welcome. $\endgroup$
    – RRL
    Commented Mar 8, 2016 at 3:47

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