i have functions: $f(x)$ and $g(x) = f(x) +1)$. I want to calculate the area between those two functions in $[0;2]$.
Therefore, my integral is $\int_0^2 g(x) - f(x) dx $, which results in $\int_0^2 f(x) + 1 - f(x) dx $, and in the end is $f(x)$ cut out and the $1$ remains. Therefore my question:
$$\int_0^2 1 dx $$
EDIT: To address @TBongers comment: Yes i can. I would estimate the geometrical area as 2, but i need to justify my estimation somehow and my actual approach is not very reasonable. But my question is actually specific for that situation. What happensi f the integration variable is canceled out?