I came across the following integral in my research:
$$ \int\limits_{0}^{1} \left[x(1-x)\right]^m \, dx \qquad m\in\mathbb{N}^+ $$
According to my CAS (I use Matlab's Symbolic Toolbox), this evaluates to:
$$ \frac{\left(m!\right)^2}{\left(2m + 1\right)!} $$
Checking a few low values of $m$ suggests that this result is correct, but I cannot understand how it was derived.
I have tried expanding $x(1-x) = x - x^2$ and using the Binomial theorem. This seems to be a step in the right direction (at least it introduces factorials), but I am not managing to grind the algebra to get that result.