I want to prove that the $k$-th derivative $h^{(k)}(x)$ of the function $h(x)=\frac{1}{1+x^2}$ is zero at $x=0$ for all integer values $k>0$.
My only idea was to go the stubborn way applying iteratively the elementary formula for the derivative of a quotient of functions. Alas I didnt find a general formula similar to the Leibniz formula for the derivatives of a product of functions neither in Wikipedia nor else in the web so far.
This puzzles me. It wouldnt surprise me if a non-recursive closed expression (using iterated binomial coefficient sums) would be existing.
I tackled the problem so far in using first the Leibniz formula on $h(x)=f(x)\frac{1}{g(x)}$ in the way
$$h^{(k)}(x)=\sum_{r=0}^k f^{(k)}(x)\left( \frac{1}{g(x)}\right)^{(k-r)}$$
So I am in front of the problem calculating $\left( \frac{1}{g(x)}\right)^{(s)}$ which in the first step tackled by decreasing iteratively by $1$
$$\left( \frac{1}{g(x)}\right)^{(s)}=\left( -\frac{g^{(1)}(x)}{g^2(x)}\right)^{(s-1)}$$
If one applies to that quotient iteratively the Leibniz product rule the next calculation problem comes up for
$$\left( \frac{1}{g^2(x)}\right)^{(t)}=\left( -\frac{(g^2)^{(1)}(x)}{g^4(x)}\right)^{(t-1)}$$
So I arrive at the problem calculating
$$\left( -\frac {g^{{2^{m-1}}^{(1)}}(x)} {g^{2^m}(x)} \right)^{(1)}$$
Then I tried to go on by de-exponentiating and getting the square
$$(g^{2^{m-1}})^{(1)}(x)=\left((g^{2^{m-2}}(x))^2\right)^{(1)}(x)=2g^{2^{m-2}}(x)g^{2^{m-2}})^{(1)}(x)$$
This leads me iteratively to the ( surprising/erroneous(?) ) result
$$\left( -\frac {g^{{2^{m-1}}^{(1)}}(x)} {g^{2^m}(x)} \right)^{(1)}=2^{m-1}\frac{g^{\prime}}{g}$$
where the exponent at the $2$ is in doubt.
Now I am overwhelmed at putting this all together and especially simplifying the nested iterative Leibniz sums with the binomials.