In introductory calculus, the derivative of a differentiable function $f$ at some point is often taught as being the slope of the tangent line to the graph of the function at that point.
My question is, isn't this circular reasoning? Tangents, after all, are defined with derivatives. To be more precise, a tangent line to a graph of a real function $f$ at some point $a$ in its domain where it is differentiable is defined by the equation
$y=f(a) + f'(a)(x-a)$
The slope of the tangent line is defined as the derivative. Hence the statement "the derivative of a function at some point is the slope of the tangent line to the graph of the function at that point" essentially reads "the derivative of a function at some point is its derivative at that point". The more inquisitive student not readily accepting the informal notion of a tangent line is thus left confused.
This leads to a more general point: why bother discussing "tangents" and "instantaneous rate of change" at all? Some instructors (like my calculus teacher) decide to throw in infinitesimals as well, to my bemusement(my calculus class is brilliant, but not quite at the stage where we can understand the theory behind hyperreal numbers). Why isn't the analytic definition sufficient? Namely, consider a function $f:I \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ where $I \subseteq \mathbb{R}$ and $x_0 \in I$. If there exists a real number $L$ such that $\forall \epsilon>0$ $\exists \delta>0$ such that for all $x \in I$, $0<|x-x_0|<\delta \Longrightarrow |\frac {f(x_0) - f(x)}{x_0 - x} - L|<\epsilon$, we say $f$ is differentiable at $x_0$ and denote $L=f'(x_0)$, the derivative of $f$ at $x_0$.