Prove the following without using L'Hospital's Rule, integration or Taylor Series: $$\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\ln(n)}{n}=0 $$
I began by rewriting the expression as: $$\lim_{n \to \infty}{\ln(n^{1/n})} $$
Since the text shows $$\lim_{n \to \infty}{n^{1/n} = 1} $$
I was wondering is the proof just as simple as stating:
$$\lim_{n \to \infty}{\ln(1) = 0} $$
or do I need to apply the squeeze theorem, use a $\varepsilon$-N proof, or etc?