I'm reading through a paper where I came across the following theorem
Let $A$ be a commutative complex Banach algebra with unit element $e$.
Theorem: A subspace $X\subset A$ of codimension $1$ is a maximal ideal in $A$ if and only if it consists of non-invertible elements.
Proof:
Clearly any maximal ideal satisfies the above condition, so it is sufficient to show that if $\text{codim } X=1$, and if $X$ consists of non-invertible elements, then $X$ is a maximal ideal in $A$.
I understand the rest of the proof, so I will omit the rest. What I feel unsure about in the extract of the proof stated above, is the following:
Why does any maximal ideal clearly satisfy the conditions (ie it consists of non-invertible elements)? My reasoning and trail of thought it something along the following lines:
Non-invertible elements lie in some proper ideal and all proper ideals are contained in maximal ideals. Hence the maximal ideal consists out of non-invertible elements. Is this the correct reasoning? Can anyone perhaps help show me a more mathematically rigorous way of "proving" it?