Using more elementary methods, notice that $d(1+\frac{1}{x})=1-\frac{1}{x^{2}}$, and $d(1-\frac{1}{x})=1+\frac{1}{x^{2}}$. Then the integrand is basically $\frac{1}{2}\frac{(1-1/x^{2})+(1+1/x^{2})}{x^{2}+1/x^{2}+2}$, and so the integral is $(\int_{\infty}^{2} \frac{dz}{z^{2}}+\int_{2}^{\infty} \frac{dz}{z^{2}})+\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{dy}{y^{2}+4}$ where $z=(x+1/x)$ and $y=(x-1/x)$. The first two integrals essentially sum to 0, and it is only the latter integral $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{dy}{y^{2}+4}$ that counts.
Edit: Another way of seeing that the contribution from the first two integrals vanishes, is to use a change of variables $x \rightarrow 1/x$, to see that $\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{x^{2}}\frac{dx}{x^{2}+1/x^{2}+2}=\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{dx}{x^{2}+1/x^{2}+2}$ , and thus $\int_{0}^{\infty}(1-\frac{1}{x^{2}})\frac{dx}{x^{2}+1/x^{2}+2}=0$.