Suppose we have two twisted cubics $C_1$, $C_2$ in $\mathbb{P}^3$ such that both of them lie in some cubic surface, which means that $h^0(\mathbb{P}^3, I_{C_1\cup C_2}(3))>0$. I want to show that in this case they intersect.
Suppose that they do not intersect. Then $\mathcal{O}_{C_1\cup C_2}=\mathcal{O}_{C_1}\oplus\mathcal{O}_{C_2}$. Twisting by 3 the exact sequence $$0\to I_{C_1\cup C_2}\to \mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{P}^3}\to\mathcal{O}_{C_1\cup C_2}\to0$$ and taking cohomologies we obtain $$0\to H^0(\mathbb{P}^3, I_{C_1\cup C_2}(3))\to H^0(\mathbb{P}^3, \mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{P}^3}(3))\stackrel{f}\to H^0(\mathbb{P}^3, \mathcal{O}_{C_1\cup C_2}(3))\to H^1(\mathbb{P}^3, I_{C_1\cup C_2}(3))\to0.$$ But $h^0(\mathbb{P}^3, \mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{P}^3}(3))=20$ and $h^0(\mathbb{P}^3, \mathcal{O}_{C_1\cup C_2}(3))=2h^0(\mathbb{P}^3, \mathcal{O}_{C_1}(3))=2h^0(\mathbb{P}^1, \mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{P}^1}(9))=20$, so it seems that the map $f$ is an isomorphism, which contradicts the assumption $h^0(\mathbb{P}^3, I_{C_1\cup C_2}(3))>0$.
Is it true or not that $f$ is an isomorphism? If yes, then how to prove this?
$\textbf{Edit}$
It seems that the approach I gave in the post is not the best possible.
If someone could give a canonical answer based on the different argument it would be welcomed!
$\textbf{Edit 2}$
I received the following suggestion.
Since $C_1$ and $C_2$ do not intersect, $I_{C_1\cup C_2}=I_{C_1}\otimes I_{C_2}$. For $I_{C_i}$ there is a resolution of the form
$$0\to\mathcal{O}(-3)^{\oplus2}\to\mathcal{O}(-2)^{\oplus3}\to I_{C_i}\to0.$$
Tensoring these two resolution and twisting by 3 we obtain the exact sequence
$$0\to\mathcal{O}(-3)^{\oplus4}\to\mathcal{O}(-2)^{\oplus6}\to\mathcal{O}(-1)^{\oplus9}\to I_{C_1}\otimes I_{C_2}(3)\to0.$$
The first three terms do not have cohomologies, so it seems that the fourth doesn't have too. How to prove this? Should I use some spectral sequence?