I can't seem to come to grips with the result below: $$S=\sum_{n=1}^\infty \sum_{k=n}^\infty\frac{1}{k!}=e$$ which is given by Mathematica (code below) and (numerically) verified by WolframAlpha.
In[65]:= Sum[1/k!, {n, 1, Infinity}, {k, n, Infinity}]
Out[65]= E
I've attempted to work it out in the following way: $$\begin{align*}S&=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\sum_{k=n}^\infty \frac{1}{k!}\\[1ex] &=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\left(\frac{1}{n!}+\frac{1}{(n+1)!}+\frac{1}{(n+2)!}+\cdots\right)\\[1ex] &=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n!}+\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{(n+1)!}+\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{(n+2)!}+\cdots\\[1ex] &=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n!}+\sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac{1}{n!}+\sum_{n=3}^\infty\frac{1}{n!}+\cdots\\[1ex] &=(e-1)+\left(e-1-\frac{1}{2}\right)+\left(e-1-\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{6}\right)+\cdots\end{align*}$$ which doesn't appear to me to follow a telescoping pattern, but I might be wrong about that. It's not obvious to me if this actually does telescope.
Edit: Changing the order of summation does wonders, as shown in the accepted answer, but I'm currently wondering if there is any possibility that the last line admits any neat telescoping argument?