In this answer, Professor Hamkins gives a proof that for models $M$ of ZF, $M$ being a model of $\text{ZFC} + V = \text{HOD}$ is equivalent to there being a definable well-ordering of the universe:
https://mathoverflow.net/a/180734
His argument easily extends to an equivalence of these properties to $M$ having a well-ordering of the universe definable with respect to an ordinal parameter. So, if there is well-ordering of the universe with respect to some parameter $p,$ but there is not a well-ordering of $V$ definable without parameters, then necessarily $p \not \in \text{OD}$. Is this situation possible? My intuition is that it shouldn't be possible, since I don't think a non-ordinal parameter should be able to define something so fundamental when an ordinal cannot do the same.