1
$\begingroup$

According to This paper, the ordinal hinge loss can be defined as follows in (4). I believe that 'a' is the true value and 'u' is the predicted one.

My question is if it is possible to re-write this so that the second derivative of the function with respect to 'u' is not zero?

enter image description here

$\endgroup$

0

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .