It is known that every prime $p$ that satisfies the title congruence can be expressed in the form $a^{2} + b^{2}$ for some integers $a,b$, and unique factorisation in $Z[i]$ ensures exactly one such representation for each $p \equiv 1 \mod 4$.
It seems at least one of $a-b, a+b$ is always a prime ? Is there any mathematical explanation for this ?