Let $a_1,a_2,\ldots,a_n,b_1,b_2,\ldots,b_n$ be positive numbers. Prove that, $$\displaystyle \sum_{j = 1}^n \dfrac{1}{a_jb_j} \sum_{i = 1}^n (a_i+b_i)^2 \geq 4n^2.$$
I was thinking of using AM-GM. We have $a_ib_i \leq \dfrac{(a_i+b_i)^2}{4}$. So we can say $\displaystyle \sum_{i,j} \dfrac{(a_i+b_i)^2}{a_jb_j} \geq \sum_{i,j} \dfrac{4a_ib_i}{a_jb_j}$ but I don't know what to do next.