In the diagram above we have that $AA_1$ and $BB_1$ are altitudes and $\angle ADB = 60^{\circ}$. The problem is two fold- show that from$\angle ADB = 60^{\circ}$ it follows that $AA_1$ = $BB_1$ and secondly answer whether it is true that $AA_1=BB_1 \implies \angle ADB = 60^{\circ}$.
Here is my proof for the first part: Since the sum of the angles in a triangle add up to $180^{\circ}$ we have that $\angle DAA_1 = DBB_1 = 30^{\circ}$. Furthermore, it can be proven that the orthocenter $H$ and $B_1$ (also $A_1$) are symmetric about $AD,DB$ respectively (let me know if you want me to add this proof, I think the question would get too convoluted). Therefore the triangles $AHB_1$ and $BHA_1$ are equilateral from which the theorem follows.
I have trouble with the second part as I think the statement is true but in my book it says it is false. Here is my proof and the question is where is my mistake.
Assume that $AA_1=BB_1$. It can be proven (let me know for this also) that if two chords in a circle are equal they form isosceles triangles from the point of intersection. Thus $HB_1=HA$. But we also have that $H$ and $B_1$ are symmetric about $AD$, so $HA = AB_1$ so $\angle B_1AH = 60^{\circ}$ and furthermore $AD$ is its bisector so $DAH = 30^{\circ}$ and from $180^{\circ}$ theorem about triangles it follows that $\angle ADB = 60^{\circ}$.
Again,my question is what is the problem with the second proof.