Let $f(X)$ be a monic polynomial with integer coefficients and let $p$ be an odd prime number. Now suppose that for every positive integer $m$, there exists an integer $a$ such that $f(a) ≡ 0 \pmod{p^m}$. Does that mean then that there exists an integer $b$ such that $f(b) = 0$?
I know this involves Hensel's Lemma but I'm not sure about the last statement. Is that true or not? If not, what's a counterexample?