The proof of the statement below is a homework question, however I did not tag this question as such since I don't need the actual proof: I have already proved the statement wring and don't need a solution; my question here is strictly in regards to the mathematical notation I am using to represent a statement.
Consider the following statement:
"If $a$ and $b$ are integers, then there are integers $m$ and $n$, such that $a=m+n$ and $b=m-n$."
So my question is, will the following be a correct representation of the statement above:
$$(\forall a\in\mathbb{\mathbb{Z}},\forall b\in\mathbb{Z})(\exists m\in\mathbb{Z},\exists n\in\mathbb{Z}: a=m+n, b=m-n)$$
Is this a clear representation or is there a more common way of writing such statement that I don't know about?
Thank you!