Why is the Möbius strip not orientable?

Question

I am trying to understand the notion of an orientable manifold.
Let M be a smooth n-manifold. We say that M is orientable if and only if there exists an atlas $A = \{(U_{\alpha}, \phi_{\alpha})\}$ such that $\textrm{det}(J(\phi_{\alpha} \circ \phi_{\beta}^{-1}))> 0$ (where defined). My question is:
Using this definition of orientation, how can one prove that the Möbius strip is not orientable?

Thank you!

Answer 1

If you had an orientation, you'd be able to define at each point $p$ a unit vector $n_p$ normal to the strip at $p$, in a way that the map $p\mapsto n_p$ is continuous. Moreover, this map is completely determined once you fix the value of $n_p$ for some specific $p$. (You have two possibilities, this uses a tangent plane at $p$, which is definable using a $(U_\alpha,\phi_\alpha)$ that covers $p$.)

The point is that the positivity condition you wrote gives you that the normal at any $p'$ is independent of the specific $(U_{\alpha'},\phi_{\alpha'})$ you may choose to use, and path connectedness gives you the uniqueness of the map. Now you simply check that if you follow a loop around the strip, the value of $n_p$ changes sign when you return to $p$, which of course is a contradiction.

(This is just a formalization of the intuitive argument.)

Answer 2

A simple answer that IMO is easy to justify using your definition of orientation goes like this.

Given any manifold $M$ and a point $p \in M$ there is a homomorphism $O : \pi_1(M,p) \to \mathbb Z_2$ and the idea is this: if $\phi : [0,1] \to M$ is a path such that $\phi(0)=\phi(1)=p$, given any basis for the tangent space to $M$ at $p$, $T_pM$ you can parallel transport that basis along the path, and you'll get a second basis for the tangent space at $\phi(1)=p$, $T_pM$. And you can ask, is the change-of-basis map from your 1st to your 2nd basis for $T_pM$ orientation-preserving -- i.e. is the determinant of that linear transformation positive? If it is, define $O(\phi)=0$, if the determinant is negative, define $O(\phi)=1$.

Fact: the path-component of $p$ in the manifold $M$ is orientable if and only if $O$ is the zero function, $O=0$. You prove it by cutting your path $\phi$ into small segments and comparing orientations within charts -- the key analytical step is the intermediate value theorem, using that determinant is a continuous function of matrices.

Of course, in this discussion "parallel transport" assumes a Riemann metric but you don't really need a Riemann metric for this argument to work. The parallel transport of vectors along a path $\phi$ simply means continuously-varying vectors such that the vector corresponding to $t \in [0,1]$ is always tangent to the manifold, i.e. elements of $T_{\phi(t)} M$. And of course if you're transporting $n$ vectors you demand that these $n$ vectors always make basis for $T_{\phi(t)}M$.

And in the case of the Moebius band, given any concrete model of the Moebius band you transport a basis along any path that goes once around the band and $O(\phi)=1$.

Answer 3

Let $M:=\{(x,y)|x\in\mathbb R, -1<y<1\}$ be an infinite strip and choose an $L>0$. The equivalence relation $(x+L,-y)\sim(x,y)$ defines a Möbius strip $\hat M$. Let $\pi: M \to \hat M$ be the projection map. The Möbius strip $\hat M$ inherits the differentiable structure from ${\mathbb R}^2$. We have to prove that $\hat M$ does not admit an atlas of the described kind which is compatible with the differentiable structure on $\hat M$. Assume that there is such an atlas $(U_\alpha,\phi_\alpha)_{\alpha\in I}$. We then define a function $\sigma:{\mathbb R}\to\{-1,1\}$ as follows: For given $x\in{\mathbb R}$ the point $\pi(x,0)$ is in $\hat M$, so there is an $\alpha\in I$ with $\pi(x,0)\in U_\alpha$. The map $f:=\phi_\alpha^{-1}\circ\pi$ is a diffeomorphism in a neighbourhood $V$ of $(x,0)$. Put $\sigma(x):=\mathrm{sgn}\thinspace J_f(x,0)$, where $J_f$ denotes the Jacobian of $f$. One easily checks that $\sigma(\cdot)$ is well defined and is locally constant, whence it is constant on ${\mathbb R}$. On the other hand we have $f(x+L,y)\equiv f(x,-y)$ in $V$ which implies $\sigma(L)=-\sigma(0)$ -- a contradiction.