0
$\begingroup$

I'm stuck on this.I need to simplify this given expression $$\cot(\fracπ4+\theta)(\cos^2\theta-\sin^2\theta)$$ So far I simplified the first parentheses to $\frac{\cos\theta-\sin\theta}{\cos\theta\sin\theta}$ which I dont if this is correct but now I dont know how to multiply this by the second parenthesis

$\endgroup$
4
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Let us continue what you started, writing $c$ for $\cos\theta$ and $s$ for $\sin\theta$: you already know the expression is $$A=\frac{c-s}{c+s}(c^2-s^2)$$ hence $$A=\frac{c-s}{c+s}(c-s)(c+s)=(c-s)^2=c^2+s^2-2cs.$$ Now, $c^2+s^2=1$ and $2cs=\sin(2\theta)$ hence $$A=1-2\sin\theta\cos\theta=1-\sin(2\theta).$$ $\endgroup$
    – Did
    Commented Nov 29, 2015 at 17:09
  • $\begingroup$ @SimpleArt Yes I am sure I "did that right". Would you be kind enough to explain what is "by far incorrect" here? $\endgroup$
    – Did
    Commented Jan 5, 2016 at 0:28
  • $\begingroup$ @Did Oh my bad. It wasn't very obvious with your $c's$ and $s's$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 5, 2016 at 0:47
  • $\begingroup$ You ought to put it in as an answer, not as a comment (in my opinion). $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 5, 2016 at 0:47

1 Answer 1

-1
$\begingroup$

Remember this:

$$\cos^2(x) - \sin^2(x) = \cos(2x)$$

and $$\cot\left(\frac{\pi}{4} - x \right) = \tan\left(\frac{\pi}{4} + x\right)$$

$\endgroup$
1
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ OK, remembered. What is next? In other words: please explain how this is an answer. $\endgroup$
    – Did
    Commented Nov 29, 2015 at 17:11

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .