So this was the question given to us. $\left(\iota=\sqrt{-1}\right)$
Value(s) of $\left(-\iota\right)^{\dfrac{1}{3}}$ are
(A) $\dfrac{\sqrt{3}-\iota}{2}$
(B) $\dfrac{\sqrt{3}+\iota}{2}$
(C) $\dfrac{-\sqrt{3}-\iota}{4}$
(D) $\dfrac{-\sqrt{3}+\iota}{2}$
And the answer, we were told, is option (A). I agree with this option; it can be easily obtained by putting $\left(-\iota\right)$ in polar form. But, my question is, why can't we rewrite $\left(-\iota\right)$ as $\iota^{3}$, and hence say that $\left(-\iota\right)^{\dfrac{1}{3}} = \iota $ ?