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In picture below, I am not sure why $R(\partial_i,\partial_j)h_{kp}=0$. I think it is because we can consider $h_{kp}$ as a function. Am I right ?

The picture below is from 57th page of this paper.

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  • $\begingroup$ Can you also link the reference? $\endgroup$
    – user99914
    Nov 20, 2015 at 8:43
  • $\begingroup$ @JohnMa Sorry , I miss it .I have added it . $\endgroup$
    – lanse2pty
    Nov 20, 2015 at 9:27
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, you are right, in that formula $h_{kl}$ is really a function so the second derivative commutes. $\endgroup$
    – user99914
    Nov 20, 2015 at 11:31
  • $\begingroup$ @JohnMa Thanks. $\endgroup$
    – lanse2pty
    Nov 20, 2015 at 11:37

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