Assume that my definition of a Boolean algebras is the following one: I have a set $B$ with two binary operations $\vee$ and $\wedge$ which both satisfy the commutative, associative and distributive laws. Both the operations have an identity element ($0$ and $1$) and for each element $b\in B$ there exists a complement (i.e. an element $b{'}\in B$ such that $b\vee b{'}=1$ and $b\wedge b{'}=0$).
Now I found the following definition of Boolean Algebra. Let $B$ be a set on which we define a binary operation $\cap$ and an unary operation ${'}$. We also require that those operations satisfy the following rules:
1) $x\cap y=y\cap x$ for each $x,\, y\in B$
2) $(x\cap y)\cap z=x\cap (y\cap z)$
3) $x\cap y{'}=z\cap z{'}$ iff $x\cap y=x$
Are those equivalent definitions? I was trying to work the thing out in the following way.
a) First we may put $0:=z\cap z'$ by property 3).
b) We may define $x\cup y:=(x{'}\cap y{'}){'}$ and put $0{'}=:1$ and we may prove the commutative law for $\cup$.
Anyway I cannot prove the associativity of $\cup$ or either the distributivity or even the fact the $0$ and $1$ are identity elements.