In my textbook, I have read that $f''(x)=0$ is a necessary but not sufficient condition for a point to be a point of inflection.
However, what happens at vertical tangents where the second derivative does not exist? Can these points be points of inflection even though $f''(x)= DNE$?
For instance, take $f(x)=x^{1/3}$. There is a vertical tangent when x equals 0... Is this a point of inflection as there is a change in concavity? If so, did the textbook omit/forget about this possibility?