A well-known theorem in commutative algebra states the fact that if $R$ is a Cohen-Macaulay ring, and $a_1,...,a_r$ is an $R$-sequence, then $R/I$ is Cohen-Macaulay, where $I=(a_1,...,a_r)$.
Now,
Is it true that for any positive integer $n$ the ring $R/I^n$ is Cohen-Macaulay?
I know, somehow, that we should resort to induction and use the short exact sequence $0\to I^n/I^{n+1} \to R/I^{n+1}\to R/I^n\to 0$ but I could not continue. Is there an elementary proof (or counterexample) for that?
Thanks for cooperation!