0
$\begingroup$

enter image description here

I'm a little confused on how to go about approximating the function (Or part 2 of the 3 part question as shown in the image). Would I use the polynomial I got from part a but substitution a for x? Or would I use the formula $cos(0) - sin(0)(x-0) - \frac{cos(0)}{2!}(x-0)^2 + \frac{sin(0)}{3!}(x-0)^3 + \frac{cos(0)}{4!}(x-0)^4$? If I were to use the second formula, how would I go about simplifying the ratio using the formula? Any kind of guidance on this would be greatly appreciated.

$\endgroup$
0
$\begingroup$

Yes, it says to use $P_4(x)$ from (1) for (2). Simply put it into $$ \frac{1-\cos(x)}{x} $$ for $\cos(x)$ and simplify.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.