Given the formula $\exists x(\exists yA(y) \rightarrow A(x))$ of classical logic. Provide a sequent calculus derivation and a natural deduction derivation of the formula.
I started to do something like this for the natural deduction, but then I got stuck: $$\dfrac{\dfrac{[\exists y\; A(y)] \quad, \quad A(t)}{A(t)}}{\dfrac{[\exists y\; A(y)] \rightarrow A(t)}{\exists x\;\big(\exists y\;A(y) \rightarrow A(x)\big)}}$$
I don't know how the natural derivation will continue, and I also I don't know how to sequent calculus derivation will look like. Sorry for the poor typesetting, but I don't see any easy way to write derivations in MathExchange, and I cannot follow any other method than tree style derivation. Any ideas?
EDIT:
$$\dfrac{\dfrac{A(y) \vdash A(y)}{\exists x A(x), A(y) \vdash A(y), A(x)}}{\dfrac{A(y) \vdash \exists y A(y) \to A(y), A(x)}{A(y) \vdash \exists x \big( \exists y A(y) \to A(x) \big), A(x)}}$$
I don't understand how from $\exists x(\exists y A(y) \rightarrow A(x))$ you have obtained $\exists y A(y) \rightarrow A(y)$. Clearly, you have removed $\exists$, but why the $x$ is changed to $y$? Also when you have gone from the second line to third line $\exists y A(y) \rightarrow A(y)$ has been transformed to $\exists x A(x)$, you clearly have done $(\rightarrow r)$, but why is $y$ changed to $x$? And at the end, how did you get rid of $\exists x A(x)$ and $A(x) on the other side completely?