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I am stuck with the following question:

Given the convex cone $$K = \{x \in \mathbb R^n : x_1 \geq x_2 \geq \cdots \geq x_n \geq 0\}$$ determine the polar set of $K$, which we denote by $K^{*}$.


I know that $K$ is a convex cone, which is easy to proof. I also know from our lecture, that $K^{*}$ is again a convex cone and
$$K^{*}=\{y\in \mathbb{R^n}: \langle x,y\rangle \leq 0\ \forall x\in K\},$$ where $\langle\cdot,\cdot\rangle$ is the inner product.

It's quite obvious, that all $y\in \mathbb{R}^n$ where $y_i\leq0\ \forall i\in[n]$ are in $K^{*}$. But there have to be some more inequalities or easier ways to determine $K^{*}$. Do you have any hints/suggestions?

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    $\begingroup$ $K$ is actually just $A \cdot \mathbb{R}^n_+$, where $A$ is a certain invertible matrix. Does this help? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 9, 2015 at 19:18
  • $\begingroup$ If I would find out more about A, this would help a lot! Thank you so much :-) $\endgroup$
    – D1Fu
    Commented Nov 9, 2015 at 19:51
  • $\begingroup$ Do you have any hints for A? It might be too obvious for me... $\endgroup$
    – D1Fu
    Commented Nov 9, 2015 at 20:03
  • $\begingroup$ Think I got it :-) $\endgroup$
    – D1Fu
    Commented Nov 9, 2015 at 20:48
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    $\begingroup$ Good. Then post your answer, and get points! :-) $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 9, 2015 at 21:17

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Ok, with Michael Grant's hint, the solution should be the following: $Let A\in \mathbb{R^{n\times n}}$ be the upper triangular matrix consisting of $1$'s. Then $K=A\cdot \mathbb{R^{n}_+}$. A is invertiable, and the following proposition can be easily shown:
$$(MX)^* = M^{-T}X^*\hspace{1mm} where \hspace{1mm} M\in \mathbb{R^{n\times n}} \hspace{1mm} invertiable$$
So for the solution of our problem, we just have to find out $A^{-T}$ and determine what ($\mathbb{R^{n}_+})^*$ is, which is not too difficult, since for $ y\in R^{n}:{<y,x>}\leq 0 \forall \hspace{1mm} x\in \mathbb{R^{n}_+}$, so $y\in\mathbb{R^{n}_-}$.

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