# Show a map from infinite product of ${0,1}$ to the Cartesian product of itself is a bijection

Prove that the map $f: \{0,1\}^{\Bbb N}\to \{0,1\}^{\Bbb N}\times \{0,1\}^{\Bbb N}$ given by ($a_1,a_2,a_3,a_4...$) $\mapsto$ ($a_1,a_3,a_5...$) $\times$ ($a_2,a_4,a_6...$)is bijective, where $\{0,1\}^{\Bbb N}$ denotes the infinite product of $\{0,1\}$

I guess the map could be interpreted as the sequence $a_1,a_2,a_3,a_4...$ mapping to the pair of sequences ($a_1,a_3,a_5...$;$a_2,a_4,a_6...$ ) but how do I show this is bijective, especially the case of surjection?

• You have two sequences $(b_n)_{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ and $(c_n)_{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ now suppose that $f((a_n)_{n\in \mathbb{N}}= ((b_n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}},(c_n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}})$ what can you conclude? – Nex Nov 8 '15 at 5:52
• Define a function $((x_1, x_2, \ldots), (y_1, y_2, \ldots)) \mapsto (x_1, y_1, x_2, y_2, \ldots)$ in the other direction and show that they're inverses of each other. – BrianO Nov 8 '15 at 5:58

Let $\{b_k\} \times \{c_j\}$ be an element. Let {$a_i$} be such that $a_{2k+1} = b_k$ and $a_{2k} = c_k$. Then $f(\{a_i\}) = \{b_k\} \times \{c_j\}$.
Let $f(\{a_i\}) = \{b_k\} \times \{c_j\}$. And let $f(\{d_i\}) = \{b_k\} \times \{c_j\}$ Then for each $b_k = a_{2k + 1} = d_{2k + 1}$ and for each $c_j = a_{2j} = d_{2k}$ so $a_i = d_i$ for all $i$ so $\{a_i\} = \{d_i\}$.
• Isn't this a proof of injectiveness? Since I read on other post that to prove a function is surjective, take an arbitrary element y $\in$ Y and show that there is an element x $\in$ X so that f ( x ) = y. – jio Nov 8 '15 at 17:40