If $\{f_j\}$ is a sequence of $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$-valued measurable functions on $(X,M)$, then the functions $$\begin{aligned} g_1(x) = \sup_{j}f_j(x), \ \ \ \ g_3(x) = \lim_{j\rightarrow \infty}\sup f_j(x) \end{aligned}$$ $$\begin{aligned} g_2(x) = \inf_{j}f_j(x), \ \ \ \ g_4(x) = \lim_{j\rightarrow \infty}\inf f_j(x) \end{aligned}$$ are all measurable functions. If $f(x) = \lim_{j\rightarrow \infty}f_j(x)$ exists for every $x\in X$, then $f$ is measurable.
proof: $$\begin{aligned} g_1^{-1}((a,\infty)) = \bigcup_{1}^{\infty}f_j^{-1}((a,\infty)), \ \ \ \ \ g_2^{-1}((-\infty,a)) = \bigcup_{1}^{\infty}f_j^{-1}((-\infty,a)) \end{aligned}$$ so $g_1$ and $g_2$ are measurable by proposition 2.3. Now we can define $$\begin{aligned} g_3(x) = \lim_{j\rightarrow \infty}\sup f_j(x) = \inf_{k\geq 1}\left( \sup_{j \geq k} f_j(x)\right) \ \ \ \ \ g_4(x) = \lim_{j\rightarrow \infty}\inf f_j(x) = \sup_{k\geq 1}\left(\inf_{j \geq k} f_j(x)\right) \end{aligned}$$ so, $g_3$ and $g_4$ are measurable.
I am not sure if this is right, any suggestions is greatly appreciated.