A week ago, I got the following :
For a positive integer $k$, using Cauchy–Schwarz inequality, $$\left(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^k(n+1)^k}\right)^2\lt \left(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^{2k}}\right)\left(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(n+1)^{2k}}\right)=\zeta(2k)(\zeta(2k)-1),$$ i.e. $$\zeta(2k)^2-\zeta(2k)-\left(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^k(n+1)^k}\right)^2\gt 0.$$ So, $$\zeta(2k)\gt \dfrac{1+\sqrt{1+4\left(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{n^k(n+1)^k}\right)^2}}{2}.$$
From this, we can have the followings :
$$\zeta(2)\gt \varphi,\qquad\zeta(4)\gt \dfrac{1+\sqrt{1+4\left(\dfrac{\pi^2}{3}-3\right)^2}}{2},\qquad \zeta(6)\gt \dfrac{1+\sqrt{1+4\left(10-\pi^2\right)^2}}{2}$$where $\varphi=\frac{1+\sqrt 5}{2}$ is the golden ratio.
Now let us define a sequence $\{a_k\}$ as $$a_k=\zeta(2k)-\dfrac{1+\sqrt{1+4\left(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{n^k(n+1)^k}\right)^2}}{2}$$
Then, it seems that $\{a_k\}$ is decreasing : $$a_1\approx 0.0269,\quad a_2\approx 0.0044,\quad a_3\approx 0.0006.$$ But I've been facing difficulty in proving that.
Question : Is $\{a_k\}$ decreasing? If so, how can we prove that?